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Let $a \in \mathbb C$ be a given non zero complex number. An exercise in my book is asking me to determine for which complex $z_0$ the the sequence

$$ z_{n+1} = {1\over 2}\left ( z_n + {a \over z_n}\right )$$

makes sense and has a limit.

Here is what I have so far:

I believe the sequence always makes sense when $z_0 \neq 0$ and it's only a question whether the limit exists or not.

I conjectured that if $\sqrt{a} = \sqrt{r}e^{i 2 \varphi}$ has positive real part then the limit of the sequence exists if $z_0$ has positive real part (and similarly for negative real parts.

To prove this I assumed that $\varphi \in (-{\pi \over 2}, {\pi \over 2})$ and that the argument of $z_0$ is also in this interval. Then it's easy to see that all $z_n$ also have positive real part and by taking the limit on both sides we can prove that the limit is $\sqrt{a}$.

(1) (At this point it's not clear to me how to determine to which of the two square roots it converges to. Any help is appreciated.)

Next I wanted to show that if $\varphi \in (-{\pi \over 2}, {\pi \over 2})$ but the argument of $z_0$ is not in this interval so that $z_0$ has negative real part then the sequence does not converge. This is where I got stuck.

(2) Can someone please help me prove that if $\varphi \in (-{\pi \over 2}, {\pi \over 2})$ but $z_0$ has negative real part then the sequence does not converge?

Anna
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  • Are you sure the sequence always makes sense? How about $z_0 = \sqrt{a}i$? – user21820 Apr 03 '15 at 09:02
  • How far in the complex analysis course are you? Are you familiar with Möbius transformations yet? Do you know Montel's (little) theorem, has the term "normal family" yet appeared? – Daniel Fischer Apr 03 '15 at 09:03
  • @DanielFischer I am reading Freitag/Busam (German book) and this is one of the exercises at the end of section 2 in the first chapter. Nothing in the text has mentioned Möbius transforms or Montel but in the exercises of the previous section there was something related to Möbius transforms (although it didn't mention that) so I read about Möbius transforms and know a little about them. But I know not much else. – Anna Apr 04 '15 at 03:58
  • I don't understand your argument about the real part because if there is a limit for some $z_0$, there certainly is a limit for $-z_0$ too since the whole sequence is just negated. – user21820 Apr 04 '15 at 06:08
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    @DanielFischer: I've given a solution that uses only elementary methods and nearly zero complex analysis. So I'm curious to see your solution too, since I've not come across Montel's theorem and normal families before. – user21820 Apr 04 '15 at 07:29
  • The technique in my solution is exactly the same as what I used to check convergence of continued fractions at http://math.stackexchange.com/a/624037. (And I got an inexplicable downvote there even though the other answer was incorrect...) – user21820 Apr 04 '15 at 07:35
  • @DanielFischer I looked up Montel's theorem and it's not clear to me how to use it. I suppose the family of functions in this exercise is $$ f_a(z) = {1 \over 2}(z + {a \over z})$$ but even if this family was uniformly bounded (which I think it's not: all $f_a$ are unbounded on $\mathbb C \setminus {0}$) then I wouldn't know what to do with the conclusion that this family is pre-compact. – Anna Apr 04 '15 at 23:44
  • The family we'd be looking at is the family of iterates $\bigl{ f^n : n\in\mathbb{N}\setminus{0}\bigr}$. It's too late at night now, but if you're interested, I can write it up tomorrow. – Daniel Fischer Apr 05 '15 at 00:02
  • @DanielFischer Yes, I'm definitely interested! It is also not clear to me what Möbius transforms have to do with this exercise... See you tomorrow! – Anna Apr 05 '15 at 00:15
  • @user21820 Could you please elaborate on what happens if $z_0 = i \sqrt{a}$? I checked the first few terms, for example $$ z_2 = {i \over 4} {1-a \over \sqrt{a}} + {a \over 2} {\sqrt{a} \over 1 -a}$$ and I don't see what's wrong with it. – Anna Apr 05 '15 at 00:21
  • @Anna: I don't understand how you get $z_2$ for $z_0 = i\sqrt{a}$, since $z_1 = 0$ and the sequence stops there. If you continue by using the extended complex plane as I did in my solution you would get $z_2 = \infty$ and thereafter $z_n = \infty$. I realize I made a mistake in my solution with respect to that case.. I'll edit it but anyway it doesn't affect the answer if we don't allow division by zero. – user21820 Apr 05 '15 at 02:39
  • Apologies that it got late, but it was a very busy day. – Daniel Fischer Apr 05 '15 at 22:22
  • @DanielFischer Thank you Daniel, for such great comments and answer I would gladly wait many many days. – Anna Apr 12 '15 at 23:37

2 Answers2

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I. The argument using normal families: $\DeclareMathOperator{\re}{Re}$

We let $b$ denote one of the two square roots of $a$. Now we note that for $z\in \mathbb{C}\setminus \{0\}$ we have

$$\re z \gtrless 0 \iff \re \frac{1}{z} \gtrless 0,$$

and hence $$f(z) = \frac{1}{2}\left(z + \frac{a}{z}\right)$$ maps the half-planes $H^+ := \{ z : \re (z/b) > 0\}$ and $H^- := \{ z : \re (z/b) < 0\}$ to themselves, as well as the (extended) line $L := \{ z : \re (z/b) = 0\} \cup \{\infty\}$. So we can consider the families of iterates of $g = f\lvert_{H^+}$, the restriction of $f$ to $H^+$, and $h = f\lvert_{H^-}$, the restriction of $f$ to $H^-$. Let $\mathscr{G} = \bigl\{ g^n : n \in \mathbb{N}\setminus \{0\} \bigr\}$ and $\mathscr{H} = \bigl\{ h^n : n \in \mathbb{N}\setminus \{0\} \bigr\}$. Then $\mathscr{G}$ is a family of holomorphic functions with values in $H^+$, and $\mathscr{H}$ is a family of holomorphic functions with values in $H^-$.

Since half-planes are biholomorphically equivalent to the unit disk, the families $\mathscr{G}$ and $\mathscr{H}$ are normal. [Note: the two families are in fact locally bounded, so the little Montel theorem asserts the normality without the detour via the unit disk, but showing that directly is non-obvious.]

Next we note that $f$ has the two fixed points $b$ and $-b$ in $\mathbb{C}$ (in the Riemann sphere, $\infty$ is a third fixed point), and since

$$f'(z) = \frac{1}{2}\left(1 - \frac{a}{z^2}\right),$$

we have $f'(\pm b) = 0$, so $b$ and $-b$ are attractive fixed points. Hence the sequence of iterates $(f^n)$ converges uniformly to the constant $b$ on some neighbourhood of $b$, and it converges uniformly to the constant $-b$ on some neighbourhood of $-b$. By the identity theorem, it follows that every subsequence $(g^{n_k})$ of $(g^n)$ that converges locally uniformly on $H^+$ converges to the constant $b$, and ditto every subsequence $(h^{n_k})$ of $(h^n)$ that converges locally uniformly on $H^-$ converges to the constant $-b$. By the normality of $\mathscr{G}$ and $\mathscr{H}$, it then follows that $g^n \to b$ locally uniformly on $H^+$ and $h^n \to -b$ locally uniformly on $H^-$.

So we see that the sequence $(z_n)$ converges to $b$ when $z_0 \in H^+$, and it converges to $-b$ when $z_0 \in H^-$. For $z_0\in L$, the sequence either converges to $\infty$ - when $z_0$ is one of countably many points on $L$ such that $z_n = 0$ for some $n\in \mathbb{N}$ - or not at all.

Remark: For this specific example, the argument by normality is not the best, we can obtain a more precise view with simpler means, as illustrated below, or in user21820's answer. However, in geometrically more complicated situations, such an argument can be very powerful while still remaining (comparatively) simple.

II. The argument by the normal form:

As above, we let $b$ denote one of the square roots of $a$. The rational function $f$ from above has two special points, the attractive fixed points $b$ and $-b$. In such a situation, it is often illuminating to move the special points to $0$ and $\infty$ by conjugating the function with a Möbius transformation. The simplest Möbius transformation mapping $b\mapsto 0$ and $-b \mapsto \infty$ is $$S(z) = \frac{z-b}{z+b}.$$

The inverse is $$S^{-1}(w) = b\frac{1+w}{1-w},$$ and we compute

$$(f\circ S^{-1})(w) = \frac{1}{2}\left( b\frac{1+w}{1-w} + b\frac{1-w}{1+w}\right) = \frac{b}{2} \frac{(1+w)^2 + (1-w)^2}{1-w^2} = b\frac{1+w^2}{1-w^2}$$ and finally

$$(S\circ f \circ S^{-1})(w) = \frac{b\frac{1+w^2}{1-w^2}-b}{b\frac{1+w^2}{1-w^2}+b} = \frac{b(1+w^2)-b(1-w^2)}{b(1+w^2)+b(1-w^2)} = \frac{2bw^2}{2b} = w^2.$$

The behaviour of the iterates of $g = S\circ f \circ S^{-1}$ is now very easy to understand. It is immediately obvious that $g^n(w_0) \to 0$ for $\lvert w_0\rvert < 1$ and $g^n(w_0) \to \infty$ for $\lvert w_0\rvert > 1$, and even the behaviour on the unit circle is better understandable. We see that $g^n(w_0)$ stabilises at $1$ if and only if there are $m\in \mathbb{Z}$ and $k\in \mathbb{N}$ such that

$$w_0 = \exp \left(2\pi i \frac{m}{2^k}\right),$$

for all other $w_0$ on the unit circle the sequence is not convergent, it becomes periodic if $w_0 = \exp (2\pi i r)$ with a rational $r$, and does not repeat for other starting values on the unit circle.

Now we can use that $f^n = S^{-1}\circ g^n \circ S$ to obtain the explicit formula

$$f^n(z) = b\frac{1 +\left(\frac{z-b}{z+b}\right)^{2^n}}{1 - \left(\frac{z-b}{z+b}\right)^{2^n}},$$

which is essentially the same as in user21820's answer.

Daniel Fischer
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  • Thank you so much! I read your answer once but I have to read it a few times more. I will accept it soon, I promise! – Anna Apr 06 '15 at 04:30
  • I wonder why someone downvoted my answer then... Strange, both my answer to this question and to the continued fraction got downvoted for no reason. – user21820 Apr 06 '15 at 07:59
  • Do Möbius transforms with fixed points exactly equal to $0$ and $\infty$ have any special properties (as opposed to Möbius transforms with other fixed points)? By now I more or less understand your second argument but it's still not clear to me how you knew that composing with a Möbius transform would make it that much easier. – Anna Apr 07 '15 at 11:57
  • @Anna The map $f$ (and its conjugate $g$) is not a Möbius transformation, so the properties of Möbius transformations with $0$ and $\infty$ as fixed points is not very important here (a Möbius transformation with $0$ and $\infty$ as fixed points has a particularly easy shape, though, it's a multiplication $z\mapsto a\cdot z$ for some $a\neq 0$). On a low-theory level, there is not much but hope that would suggest moving the fixed points to $0$ and $\infty$. Behaviour at these two points tends to be easier to analyse than behaviour around other points, so we can hope that such a conjugation – Daniel Fischer Apr 07 '15 at 12:21
  • simplifies things. That it turns out to become that simple is then just a pleasant surprise. On a higher-theory level, we know that $f$ is a two-sheeted (branched) covering of the Riemann sphere $\widehat{\mathbb{C}}$, and there are not many equivalence classes of such coverings. But unless you know in advance what will come out, the only way to find such simplifications is the experience what sort of things often lead to simplifications, and then try whether any of the things you know helps in the given situation. It's all about building a toolbox and some intuition which tools to try first. – Daniel Fischer Apr 07 '15 at 12:22
  • Thank you for your comments. I understand what you're saying: when I gain experience I will be able to see these things. Please let me ask you another question about this: I would like to summarise what I should learn from this. Namely: in general, if $f: \mathbb C \to \mathbb C$ is an arbitrary map with one or two attractive fixed points then it might help to move them to $0$ and $\infty$ as in your answer? Or, does it also help if it's just fixed points $f(x) = x$, without being attractive? – Anna Apr 07 '15 at 23:56
  • Also: how do we extend $f$ from $\mathbb C$ to $\widehat{\mathbb C}$? We need to define $f(\infty)$. At first I thought $f(\infty) := \infty$ but do I have to prove that this extension is continuous? Or holomorphic? – Anna Apr 08 '15 at 04:43
  • And I have one last question about argument 2 (then I fully understand everything): Why do you go back to $f$ at the end? Using $g$ we found that if $|z_0|<1$ then $z_n \to 0$ etc. So we know all about the convergence of $z_n$. Why do you want an explicit formula at the end? – Anna Apr 08 '15 at 05:39
  • On second thought... I can't explain why $f$ and $g$ when iterated starting at the same $z_0$ will converge to the same limit. But if we calculate the starting values using $g$ then this is a prerequisite. Isn't it? – Anna Apr 08 '15 at 05:45
  • Last question first, @Anna: We don't start the iterations of $f$ resp. $g$ at the same point, if we start the iteration of $f$ at $z_0$, then the corresponding iteration of $g$ starts at $S(z_0) = \frac{z_0-b}{z_0+b}$. If the iteration of $f$ converges to $b$ ($-b$), then the corresponding iteration of $g$ converges to $S(b) = 0$ ($S(-b) = \infty$) [and vice versa]. The condition $\lvert S(z_0)\rvert < 1$ ($> 1$) is equivalent to $z_0$ being closer to $b$ than to $-b$ (the other way round), which happens to be $\operatorname{Re} (z/b) > 0$ ($< 0$). – Daniel Fischer Apr 08 '15 at 11:44
  • Once we know the convergence behaviour, we don't need an explicit formula for the iterates of $f$, but it doesn't harm, and if it isn't much work to get one, why not? Regarding the extension of $f$ to $\widehat{\mathbb{C}}$, yes, one sets $f(\infty) = \infty$, and of course $f(0) = \infty$; at some point one needs to show that such an extension to isolated singularities yields a holomorphic [as a map to the sphere] map, later one just uses that result. Looking at the sphere, poles are just removable singularities where the value is $\infty$. – Daniel Fischer Apr 08 '15 at 11:44
  • Finally, for arbitrary (holomorphic) $f\colon \mathbb{C} \to \widehat{\mathbb{C}}$, you generally have an essential singularity at $\infty$, which makes things ugly; then it's not so often helpful to move a fixed point to $\infty$ since that moves the essential singularity into $\mathbb{C}$, and the conjugation tends to not produce something nice. For a rational $f$, if you have fixed points where the derivative vanishes, it very likely helps to move them to $0$ or $\infty$; if they are attractive fixed points with non-vanishing derivative, it still helps often. – Daniel Fischer Apr 08 '15 at 11:46
  • For non-attractive fixed points, it's still worth trying if what you have doesn't already look nice, but one should not be too optimistic. Also, the order of the rational function [maximum of the degrees of numerator and denominator in reduced form] is important. For rational functions of small order, these transformations are more helpful than for larger orders. For order $1$, you have a Möbius transformation, and if you have a Möbius transformation with two fixed points, moving them to $0$ and $\infty$ always produces something very simple ($z\mapsto az$); – Daniel Fischer Apr 08 '15 at 11:47
  • for order $2$ [like here], it usually helps, but not always - $z \mapsto 1/z^2$ has three repellent fixed points $1, \exp(\pm2\pi i/3)$, and moving two of them to $0$ and $\infty$ doesn't produce anything simpler. That one illustrates that one should not only look at fixed points, but also at cycles of short length (here length $2$, occasionally one looks at cycles of length $3$ or $4$, longer cycles are rarely useful); if $f(u) = v$ and $f(v) = u$, it can help to move $u,v$ to $0,\infty$. – Daniel Fischer Apr 08 '15 at 11:47
  • Thank you for your help. I thought I understood everything but it turned out that I have one more question... when you compose with a Möbius map then you're composing with a bijective conformal map... but shouldn't you be composing with a homeomorphism instead? I mean, continuity is important to preserve convergence, no? I guess the Möbius map is continuous except at one point so it probably works anyway... – Anna Apr 19 '15 at 06:28
  • @Anna When you look at the Riemann sphere, the Möbius transformations are continuous on the whole sphere, they are homeomorphisms of $\widehat{\mathbb{C}}$. To see the continuity at $\infty$ resp. at a pole, you look at $T(1/z)$ resp. $1/T(z)$ [and if $T(\infty) = \infty$, you look at $1/T(1/z)$]. If you try to restrict attention only to $\mathbb{C}$, you face the problem that $f$ has a pole at $0$, and zeros at $\pm ib$, and the set of points that are a pole of some iterate of $f$ is dense on the line $ib\cdot \mathbb{R}$, so you would have to leave that whole line out. – Daniel Fischer Apr 19 '15 at 12:48
  • You can do that (and then you avoid the "problematic" points of the Möbius transformation), but it's simpler if you include $\infty$ in the considerations. – Daniel Fischer Apr 19 '15 at 12:48
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[I will solve the problem in the extended complex plane $\hat{\mathbb{C}} = \mathbb{C} \cup \{\infty\}$ for convenience.]

Solution

Take $z_0 \in \hat{\mathbb{C}}$ and $z_{n+1} = \frac{1}{2} ( z_n + \frac{a}{z_n} )$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.

[Note that if $a = 0$ then $z_n \to 0$ or $z_n = \infty$ depending on whether $z_0 \ne \infty$, but the question assumes $a \ne 0$ anyway.]

Let $w_n = \sqrt{a} z_n$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$. [Then all we need to find is the behaviour of $w$ since $z_n = \frac{w_n}{\sqrt{a}}$.]

Then $w_{n+1} = \frac{1}{2} ( w_n + \frac{1}{w_n} )$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.

[Now the idea is to express $w_n = \frac{p_n}{q_n}$ and convert the recurrence into simpler ones.]

Let $(p_0,q_0) = (w_0,1)$ and $(p_{n+1},q_{n+1}) = (p_n^2+q_n^2,2p_nq_n)$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.

Then $w_{n} = \frac{p_n}{q_n}$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.

Also $p_{n+1}+q_{n+1} = (p_n+q_n)^2$ and hence $p_n+q_n = (p_0+q_0)^{2^n} = (w_0+1)^{2^n}$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.

And $p_{n+1}-q_{n+1} = (p_n-q_n)^2$ and hence $p_n-q_n = (p_0-q_0)^{2^n} = (w_0-1)^{2^n}$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.

Thus $w_n = \dfrac{(w_0+1)^{2^n}+(w_0-1)^{2^n}}{(w_0+1)^{2^n}-(w_0-1)^{2^n}} = \dfrac{c^{2^n}+1}{c^{2^n}-1}$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$, where $c = \dfrac{w_0+1}{w_0-1}$.

If $|c| > 1$:

  $w_n \to 1$ as $n \to \infty$.

If $|c| < 1$:

  $w_n \to -1$ as $n \to \infty$.

If $|c| = 1$ and $c^{2^m} = 1$ for some $m \in \mathbb{N}$:

  $w_n = \infty$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}_{\ge m}$.

If $|c| = 1$ and $c^{2^n} \ne 1$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$:

  $w_0 \ne \infty$ and $|w_0-1| = |w_0-(-1)|$

  Thus $w_0 \in i\mathbb{R}$ and hence $w_n \in i\mathbb{R}$ since $w_n \ne \infty$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$.

  If $w_n \to b$ as $n \to \infty$ for some $b \in \hat{\mathbb{C}}$:

    $b \in i\mathbb{R} \cup \{\infty\}$ because $i\mathbb{R} \cup \{\infty\}$ is closed in $\hat{\mathbb{C}}$.

    If $b = \infty$:

      Let $m \in \mathbb{N}$ such that $|w_n| \ge 2$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}_{\ge m}$.

      Then $|c^{2^n}-1| \le 1$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}_{\ge m}$.

      Let $t \in [-π/2,π/2] \backslash \{0\}$ such that $c^{2^m} = e^{it}$.

      Then $c^{2^{m+n}} = e^{it2^n}$ for all $n \in \mathbb{N}$ and hence $Arg(c^{2^{m+k}}) \notin [-π/2,π/2]$ for some $k \in \mathbb{N}$.

      Thus $|c^{2^{m+k}}-1| > 1$ and hence a contradiction.

    Therefore $b \ne \infty$.

    Thus $0 = \lim_{n\to\infty} ( z_{n+1} - \frac{1}{2} ( z_n + \frac{1}{z_n} ) ) = b - \frac{1}{2} ( b + \frac{1}{b} )$ and hence $b \in \{1,-1\}$.

    Contradiction.

  Therefore $w$ does not converge.

[I leave it to you to find the corresponding $w_0$ for each case above.]

Notes

For those values of $w_0$ that make $w$ non-convergent, some make $w$ a cyclic sequence while others never cycle. See if you can distinguish the two cases as well.

Notice also that the iteration we have studied is exactly the Newton-Raphson iteration to find a root of $z \mapsto z^2-a$. Our analysis shows exactly when it converges to which root. Such iteration is actually an efficient method to compute the square-root of a complex number in arbitrary precision arithmetic, since the precision doubles at each step (which follows from the exponent of $2^n$ in the closed form for $w_n$), and hence each step is computed with about double the precision of the previous step, making the total time no more than a constant times that taken by the last step.

user21820
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  • @RudytheReindeer: Oh right. I didn't notice and just solved the general case haha! – user21820 Apr 04 '15 at 07:36
  • Thank you for your answer. Could you say more about why you consider the sequence $\sqrt{a} z_n$? – Anna Apr 04 '15 at 23:48
  • @Anna: To get rid of the $a$. Note also that you must pick one of the square-roots and stick with it all the way. You can choose not to do so, but then all of the subsequent analysis would be have $a$ in them and hence more complicated. – user21820 Apr 05 '15 at 02:33