I know for a limit to exist on a LH/RH function they must be equal. So to prove that the limit doesn't exist in this situation can I just do what I have done?
Edit, I think I need to make it more like this which is by the 3.14 Theorem????
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Yeah, this is right what you did :) – Atvin Apr 04 '15 at 21:08
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I would have used that if you take $0$, no matter what $r>0$ you say, $0$ will have continuum amount of negative and positive elements too within that $r$ range, so the limit can't exist. – Atvin Apr 04 '15 at 21:09
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I edited it... I think it fits more in terms of proving ..? – Natasha Epperson Apr 04 '15 at 21:33
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It is totally good. :) – Atvin Apr 05 '15 at 06:32