Consider the three lines of $\mathbb{P}^3$ given by
$L: \, z_0 = z_1 = 0 \\ M: \, z_2=z_3 = 0 \\ N: \, z_0 = z_2, \, z_1 = z_3.$
It is claimed in Exercise 2.12 of Harris (a first course) that the union of all lines that meet all $L,M,N$ is projectively equivalent to the segre variety $\Sigma_{1,1} = \sigma(\mathbb{P}^1 \times \mathbb{P}^1)$, where $\sigma$ is the Segre embedding.
I have been thinking about this problem but i am still confused about some important things:
1) Conceptually, a line of $\mathbb{P}^3$ can be represented by a point of $\mathbb{P}^3 \times \mathbb{P}^3$. On the other hand $\Sigma_{1,1}$ lives inside $\mathbb{P}^3$. So i don't see how a point of $\Sigma_{1,1}$ may correspond to a line.
2) If i take a line that meets all three $L,M,N$, then the coefficients of the equations of the line satisfy three quadratic equations and that's precisely the space of lines that meet all three $L,M,N$. Now, these are three equations in $8$ unknowns and i can't see how they could be replaced by one equation in $4$ unknowns, which is the equation that describes $\Sigma_{1,1}$.
Any insights?