I can't understand the sentence below: "A subset Y ⊂ X will be called inductive if, for every x ∈ X such that y ∈ Y for all y ∈ X such that y < x, we have x ∈ Y." please tell me what's the meaning, thanks!
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Yeah, that's not a very well-worded sentence, is it?!
Try this: Given $x\in X$, define $X_{{}<x} = \{ z\in X\colon z<x\}$. With this notation, a subset $Y\subset X$ is inductive if the following implication always holds for every $x\in X$: $$ X_{{}<x} \subset Y \implies x\in Y. $$ (If $Y$ contains everything in $X$ less than $x$, then it contains $x$ as well.)
Greg Martin
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Thank you very much for the prompt reply. – Song Wang Apr 09 '15 at 17:26