I don't think there is anything particularly wrong with your answer, however it is more common to see it written without conditions on $n$ like you have put.
Your answer was:
$$\{\pi(n+\frac{1}{6})~:~n~\text{is an even integer}\}\cup \{\pi(n-\frac{1}{6})~:~n~\text{is an odd integer}\}$$
I would personally have written it in the following way:
$$\{2\pi n +\frac{\pi}{6}~:~n~\text{is any integer}\}\cup \{2\pi n + \frac{5\pi}{6}~:~n~\text{is any integer}\}$$
To see that they are equivalent, note that for $n$ even, you can rewrite it as $n=2k$. You have then for all even $n$, $\pi(n+\frac{1}{6}) = \pi (2k + \frac{1}{6}) = 2\pi k + \frac{\pi}{6}$. By relabeling you see that the set on the left in both your and my answers are the same.
(notice further that to cover all even integers $n$ is equivalent to covering all integers $k$ for $n=2k$., i.e. there is a bijection between them)
For the set on the right, noting that for $n$ odd, it can be written as $n=2k+1$, you have then $\pi(n-\frac{1}{6}) = \pi(2k+1 - \frac{1}{6}) = \pi(2k+\frac{5}{6}) = 2\pi k + \frac{5\pi}{6}$. Again, by relabeling $k$ to $n$ you see our answers agree once again. Notice further that both of our answers agree with the answers given in the other posts and with wolfram.alpha