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I'm working through some analysis books, and while working through the section on directional derivatives, I searched here and found this answer, which states

Let $f: R^2 \to R$ be defined by $f(x,y)= \frac{x^3y}{x^4+y^2}$ for $(x,y) \neq (0,0)$ and $f(0,0) = 0$. This function is continuous; its directional derivative is defined at each point in every direction; and at each point its directional derivative is a linear function of the direction.

I set about trying to show this at the origin, and here's what I have so far:

We have $g(t) = (x, y) + (v, w)t$, so $g(0) = (x, y)$. To find the directional derivative, I want to find $(f \circ g)'(0) = G'(0)$. Taking the composition and doing the algreba, I get

\begin{align} G(t) &= (f \circ g)(t) \\ &= \frac{(x+vt)^3 (y+wt)}{(x+vt)^4+(y+wt)^2} \\ &= (x+vt)^3 (y+wt) \left[ (x+vt)^4+(y+wt)^2 \right]^{-1} \end{align}

From the Chain Rule wrt $t$: \begin{align} G'(t) &= \frac{3v(x+vt)^2 (y+wt) + w(x+vt)^3}{(x+vt)^4+(y+wt)^2} - \frac{(4v(x+vt)^3 + 2w(y+wt)) (x+vt)^3 (y+wt) } {((x+vt)^4+(y+wt)^2 )^2} \\ \implies G'(0) &= \frac{3vx^2y + wx^3}{x^4+y^2} - \frac{(4vx^3 + 2wy) x^3 y } {(x^4+y^2)^2} \end{align}

Assuming I did all that algebra correctly, I don't see where this gets me. Do I then have to use the definition of a derivative in one dimension and show that $G'(0)$ satisfies differentiability at $0$, i.e. \begin{equation} G(t) = G(0) + G'(0)(t-0) + X(t-0) \end{equation}

and $\lim_{t\to0} \frac{X(t-0)}{t-0} = 0$?


edit: I found this answer that takes another approach, so using that method, where $y$ is the direction vector and $a$ is the point at which we take the derivative, gives me this:

\begin{align} \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(\mathbf{a} + h\mathbf{y}) - f(\mathbf{a})}{h} &= \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f((0,0) + h(y_{1},y_{2})) - f(\mathbf{0})}{h} \\ &= \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{f(hy_{1},hy_{2})}{h} \\ &= \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{(hy_1)^3 (hy_2)}{h((hy_1)^4 + (hy_2)^2)} \\ &= \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{h^4 y_1^3 y_2}{h(h^4y_1^4 + h^2y_2^2)} \\ &= \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{h^4 y_1^3 y_2}{h^3(h^2y_1^4 + y_2^2)} \\ &= \lim_{h \to 0}\frac{h y_1^3 y_2}{(h^2y_1^4 + y_2^2)} \\ &= 0 \end{align}

Since this limit exists, regardless of the values for the vector $\mathbf{y}$ (assuming that $\mathbf{y}$ isn't the zero vector, can I conclude that the directional derivative exists for all nonzero vectors?

M T
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1 Answers1

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Your second method there looks correct to me. You are correct in your thinking here that the existence of the limit is sufficient to show the existence of the derivative. Put another way, we're not concerned with what the directional derivative is, just that it is not undefined anywhere.

AGPeddle
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