In this thread I asked a question about getting started on a problem.
The question is this:
Let $f$ be a function such that $f(x) = \frac {(-1)^n}n$ for $x\in [n, n+1)$.
1) Show that $lim_{n\to \infty} \int_{[1,n]} f$ exists
2) Is $f$ integrable on $[1, \infty)$
Are 1) and 2) essentially asking the same thing? I've proven 1) by basically noting that $f$ is a step function and thus can be written as a simple function, and was able to show there does exist a limit. So does this show that $f$ is Lebesgue integral on $[1, \infty)$?