Is this a valid proof for $0a =0$? I am using only Hilbert's axioms of the real numbers (for simplicity).
$(a+0)(a+0) = a^2 + 0a + 0a + 0^2 = (a)(a) = a^2$
Assume that $0a$ does not equal zero.
Then from $a^2 + 0a + 0a + 0^2$ we get $(a+0)(a+0) > a^2$ or $(a+0)(a+0) < a^2$ which contradicts the proven above statement.
Therefore, $0a = 0$
QED