I have the following problem:
$\int^\pi_0 (4y^2-y'^2)dx$
which satisfies: $y=1$ on $x=0$ and $y'=0$ on $x=\pi$.
I am to show that the solution is $y=cos(2x)$.
Now, I first realised that the integrand is a function of $y$ and $y'$ only, so the usual Euler-Lagrange equation can be written as (where f is the integrand):
$f-y'\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial y'} = c_1$
(follows from $\dfrac{\partial f}{\partial y} - \dfrac{d}{dx} \dfrac{\partial f}{\partial y'} = 0$).
Now, if I substitute the terms in, this gives me:
$\dfrac{dy}{dx} = \sqrt{c_1-4y^2}$
Which, after separation of variables, gives me:
$\dfrac{\sin^{-1}(2y/\sqrt{c_1})}{2} = x + c_2$
Now, solving this with the given initial conditions gives me $y=1$, not $y=cos(2x)$.
Anyone able to point me in the right direction here?