The textbook says, to find the integral of the type $\dfrac{px+q}{ax^2 +bx + c}$, where $p,q,a,b,c$ are constants, we are to find real numbers $A$ and $B$ such that
$$px+q = A \dfrac{d}{dx} (ax^2 + bx + c) + B => A(2ax+b) + B.$$
Now to determine $A$ and $B$, we equate both sides of the coefficients of $x$ and constant terms so the integral is reduced to one of the known forms [such as "$\dfrac{1}{x^2 - a^2}$"], and then we can find the integral easily.
But, Can you please explain why we have to differentiate the denominator of the given integral? I am not able to see how it works. Why do we have to find $\frac{d}{dx}$ of $(ax^2 + bx + c)$? How does it work out?
Thank you
Eg: I know that the integral of (sinx)^2 * cosx dx is [(sinx)^3]/3 because we can take u = sinx and so du = cosx dx
– zibzabpuzzless Apr 29 '15 at 15:22