I was wondering if in finding the limit of a two variables function (say, $F(x,y)$), I can choose the path by let $y=f(x)$, then find the limit in the same way of that in one variable functions.
For example, $$ \lim_{(x,y) \to (0,0)} \frac{xy}{x^2+xy+y^2} $$
(It has no limit there by choosing first $y=0$ and then $y=x$)
So I'm asking if the following procedures are correct:
Let $y=f(x)$ where $f(0)=0$ since the function passes $(0,0)$
The function then becomes: $$ \frac{xf(x)}{x^2 + xf(x) +f(x)^2} $$ Then it's an indeterminate form $[0/0]$, so I differentiate, $$ \frac{xf'(x)+f(x)}{2x + xf'(x)+f(x) +2f(x)f'(x)} $$ Then it's still $[0/0]$ so I differentiate again, $$\frac{xf''(x)+2f'(x)}{2+xf''(x)+2f'(x) +2f(x)f"(x)+2f'(x)^2}$$
By substituting $x=0$, I get $$\lim F(x,y) = \frac{2f'(x)}{2+2f'(x)+2f'(x)^2}$$
Since $f'(x)$ depends on the path I choose, the limit depends on the path I choose also. Thus, the limit at $(0,0)$ does not exist.
So that's all, the question I have are
- is this a valid method to determine existence of limits?
- is this a valid method to find the limit?
(My teacher says it wont work for 2.) but I'm still unclear about his explanations)
(Sorry if I made any mistake or this is a very stupid question, I'm very new to this site and this is my first question, thank you in advance!)