I need help with the following: Use mathematical induction to prove that for every $n\in N$, $$ \sum_{k=1}^n\frac{1}{\cos kx \cos(k+1)x}=\frac{\tan(n+1)x-\tan x}{\sin x} $$ For $n=1$, the statement is true. Suppose that the statement is true for $n=m\in N$, and prove that it is true for $n=m+1$.
$$\sum_{k=1}^{m+1} \frac{1}{\cos kx \cos(k+1)x}=\frac{\tan(m+2)x-\tan x}{\sin x}(*)$$ Proof: $$\frac{\tan(m+2)x-\tan x}{\sin x}=\frac{\tan(m+1)x-\tan x}{\sin x}+\frac{1}{\cos(k+1)x \cos(k+2)x}$$ Using trigonometry rule $\cos x \cos y$, the right side of equation is $$\frac{(\cos x+\cos(2k+3)x)(\tan(m+1)x-\tan x)+2\sin x}{\sin x(\cos x+\cos(2k+3)x)}$$ How to further transform this expression to become $(*)$
Thanks for replies.