I am currently in high school and we are studying radicals. I had asked my math teacher why $\sqrt{ab}=\sqrt{a}\sqrt{b}$ (for all a,b>0) and he tries to prove it by arguing that $a^{1/2}*b^{1/2}=(ab)^{1/2}$ (an exponent law). However, I find this proof problematic since $x^{1/2}$ is simply defined as $\sqrt{x}$, so the reasoning is circular.
My view is that $\sqrt{ab}=\sqrt{a}\sqrt{b}$ because once we square both sides we get $ab=ab$. Since we're obviously referring to the positive root, and the function $f(x) = \sqrt{x}$ is injective, it necessarily follows that the original expressions $\sqrt{ab}$ and $\sqrt{a}\sqrt{b}$ are equivalent because for injective functions it is not possible to map distinct elements in the domain to the same element in the range ($ab$). Hence they are equivalent expressions.
My question therefore is, is my proof valid and/or rigorous (I find it convincing but maybe it's wrong; I just want to be clear) and secondly was my teacher's proof correct?