I've been trying to solve it for quite some time but I still don't get it why it is true.
The original equation is: \begin{equation*} 1-\frac{\sin{^2}\theta}{1-\cos\theta}=-\cos\theta. \end{equation*} My work so far: \begin{equation*} \frac{1-\cos\theta}{1-\cos\theta}-\frac{\sin{^2}\theta}{1-\cos\theta} =\frac{1-\cos\theta-\sin{^2}\theta}{1-\cos\theta} =\frac{(1-\sin{^2}\theta)-\cos\theta}{1-\cos\theta} \\ =\frac{\cos{^2}\theta-\cos\theta}{1-\cos\theta} =\frac{\cos\theta(\cos\theta-1)}{1-\cos\theta}. \end{equation*} I saw on some sites that this is equal to $-\cos\theta$ but I don't see why.