I am reading Hatcher's proof of the homotopy lifting property of the covering map $p: \mathbb{R}\to S^1$. Starting with a homotopy $F: Y \times I \to S^1$ and a map $\tilde{F}:Y \times \{0\} \to \mathbb{R}$, first he shows existence of the lift for a neighborhood $N$ of a point $y_0 \in Y$. Letting $U_i$ be the open cover of $S^1$ such that $p^{-1}(U_i)$ is a disjoint union of $\tilde{U}_i^j$ mapped homeomorphically onto $U_i$ by $p$, he then finds a neighborhood $N$ of $y_0$ and a partition of $[0,1]$ such that $F(N \times [t_i, t_{i+1}]) \subset U_i$. We build $\tilde{F}:N \times [0,t_i]$ inductively.
Near the end of this paragraph, he makes a comment I don't understand. Having constructed $\tilde{F}:N \times [0,t_i]$, we then find $\tilde{U}_i$ such that $\tilde{F}(y_i, t_i) \in \tilde{U}_i$. He says that we may have to shrink $N$ in order to assume that $\tilde{F}(N \times \{t_i\})\subseteq \tilde{U_i}$.
What I don't understand is: why would we ever have to shrink $N$? $\tilde{F}\left.\right| N \times [t_{i-1}, t_i]$ is defined to be $p^{-1} \circ F$, where $p^{-1}$ refers to the homeomorphism $p: \tilde{U}_{i-1} \to U_{i-1}$. But then $\tilde{F}(N \times \{t_i\}) \subseteq \tilde{U}_{i-1} \cap \tilde{U}_i$, because $F(N \times [t_{i-1}, t_i]) \subseteq U_{i-1}$ and $F(N \times [t_i, t_{i+1}]) \subset U_i$, and $p$ is a homeomorphism on $\tilde{U}_{i-1} \cap \tilde{U}_i$.
What am I missing?