No, put simply. I cite piecewise equations, recursive functions, infinite sums, and trigonometric functions, amongst others. The list goes on and on and on.
Of course, you can intuitively define some functions with said "base" calculations; you (or your friend) cited $n!$ as an example, as $n(n-1)(n-2)\ldots(1)$ (which is better defined using the $\Gamma$ function or at least using $\prod$). I challenge your friend to try and express the equality $\pi=\pi$ using only the "base" calculations and numbers.
I guess the most obvious counter-example might be any $x^n$ for $n\notin\mathbb{R}$; how might you define $\sqrt2$ or $10^{4.326}$ with "base" calculations? It really is an absurd invalid claim, when you think about it. Though it does make intuitive sense, seeing how rigorous mathematicians can be, when all it requires is some of the basics. (Like trying to prove that $\sqrt2$ is irrational using some obscure calculus field, or something. Hehe.)
Specific examples
$$\int_{-3}^{3}x^2+x^3-x^{\lfloor x\rceil}\text{d}x$$
$$f(x)=\sin(x)$$
$$\lceil x\rceil$$
$$\lim_{n\to\infty}\left(1+\frac1n\right)^n$$
Edit
This is a bit of a necropost, but is done for completness's sake. I read in the comments that you allowed for iterations of some sense. This is a different matter entirely.
There exist Taylor series for a good deal of functions ($\sin,\cos,\exp,\sqrt{n},\pi,e$, i.e.), so this may seem like a more plausible claim. Moreover, if by iteration, you also mean recursion, even more is possible.
However, I am not sure of the extent of sole recursion etc.; I would think that an arbitrary integral still would not have a general method using recursion and base methods.