It is well known that a sphere minimizes the surface area to volume ratio since it reaches equality in the Isoperimetric Inequality. I'm trying to prove that no other closed surface has this property.
Since the inequality says that $36\pi V^2 \leq A^3$ we can state the problem as:
Let $\mathcal{S}$ be a simple closed surface in $\mathbb{R}^3$ with surface area $4\pi$. Prove that if its volume is $\dfrac{4}{3}\pi$ then $\mathcal{S} = \mathbf{S}^2$.
My hypothesis:
If there is a surface $\mathcal{S}\neq \mathbf{S}^2$ but with the same surface area to volume ratio then there is a function $F(t,x):I\times \mathbf{S}^2\to \mathbb{R}^3$ so that:
$$F(t,x_0) \text{ is continuous }\forall x_0\in\mathbf{S}^2$$ $$F(t_0,\mathbf{S}^2) \text{ is a simple closed surface }\forall t_0\in I$$ $$F(0,\mathbf{S}^2) = \mathbf{S}^2\qquad F(1,\mathbf{S}^2) = \mathcal{S}$$ $$F(0,\mathbf{S}^2) \cong F(t,\mathbf{S}^2)\qquad \forall t\in I$$ $$V(F(t,\mathbf{S}^2)) = \frac{4}{3}\pi\qquad A(F(t,\mathbf{S}^2)) = 4\pi\qquad \forall t\in I$$
Where $\cong$ refers to equivalence via a bijective function, and $V(X)$ and $A(X)$ are, respectively, the volume and surface area functions.
In other words, there is some kind of continuous homeomorphism between both surfaces that conserves both volume and surface area.
Then by using variation calculus we can prove that if a surface is "almost" a sphere, it has a higher $S/V$, thus there cannot be such function $F$ and therefore there is no such surface $\mathcal{S}$.
Perhaps my hypothesis is false. Feel free to prove the statement without using it.