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$f(x)$ is a differentiable function and $g(x)$ is a double differentiable function such that $|f(x)|\leqslant 1$ and $f'(x)=g(x)$. If $$f(0)^2+g(0)^2=9$$

then prove that there exists some $c\in(-3,3)$ such that$ \ \ g(c) \cdot g''(c)<0$.

Attempt:

Let us define a function $h(x) = g(x) g~'(x)$. Then

$$h'(x) = g(x)g''(x) + \left( g'(x) \right)^2 \tag 1$$

If we prove that for some $c \in (-3,3), h~'(c) < 0,$ then $$g(c)g''(c) <0 \tag 2$$

Also, $$\left|f(0)\right| < 1 \implies f'(0) \in (-3,-2\sqrt 2 ) \cup (2\sqrt 2,3) $$

Could someone please advise me how do I move forward from here.

Thank you very much for your help in this regard.

MathMan
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2 Answers2

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(Unless I made some error, the statement actually holds with $(-3, 3)$ replaced by $(-a, a)$ for any $a > 1/\sqrt 2$.)

Without loss of generality we can assume that $$ g(0) \ge 0 \text{ and } g'(0) \ge 0 \, .$$ (Otherwise replace $f$ and $g$ by $$ f_1(x) = u f(vx) \, , g_1(x) = uvg(vx) $$ where $u = \pm 1$ and $v = \pm 1$ are chosen appropriately.)

Assume that $a > 0$ and $$ g(x) g''(x) \ge 0 \text{ for all } x \in (0, a) \, . \tag 1 $$ Define $$ h(x) = g(x)^2 \, . $$ Then $$ h(0) = 9 - f(0)^2 \ge 8 \, , \\ h'(x) = 2 g(x) g'(x) \, , \, h'(0) \ge 0 \, , \\ h''(x) = 2 g'(x)^2 + 2 g(x) g''(x) \ge 0 \, . $$ From $h'' \ge 0$ follows that $h'$ is increasing and therefore non-negative on $[0, a]$. Consequently, $h$ is increasing and therefore $h(x) \ge 8$ for all $ x \in [0, a]$.

So $f'(x) = g(x) \ge \sqrt 8$ for all $ x \in [0, a]$ and the Mean-value theorem gives $$ 2 \ge f(a) - f(0) \ge (a - 0) \, \sqrt 8 $$ and therefore $$ a \le \frac{2}{\sqrt 8} = \frac{1}{\sqrt 2} \, . $$

It follows that for any $a > 1/\sqrt 2$, $(1)$ cannot hold and $g(c)g''(c) < 0$ for some $c \in (0, a)$.

Martin R
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  • Hello, I didn't quite understand how did you get the upper limit as $$\color{red}{2 \ge} f(a) - f(0) \ge (a - 0) , \sqrt 8$$ –  Jan 22 '19 at 18:13
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    @CaptainQuestion: $|f(x)|\leq 1$ is given, so the difference can be at most $2$. – Martin R Jan 22 '19 at 18:24
  • Thanks a lot! $\vphantom{brbdn}$ –  Jan 23 '19 at 13:34
  • How did you conclude to define $h(x) = g^2$? It works out but it seemed like suprising substitution to me @Martin R – tryst with freedom Dec 27 '20 at 09:37
  • In the first sentence, you kept bound on a but in another line you stated simply $a>0$ – tryst with freedom Dec 27 '20 at 09:38
  • @Buraian: Well, I wrote this 5 years ago, so I cannot remember exactly what the motivation was. But I think it is because the $h''$ involves $gg''$. – We assume that $gg'' \ge 0$ on an interval $[-a, a]$ and obtain a contradiction if $a > 1/\sqrt 2$. – Martin R Dec 27 '20 at 09:42
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It is clear that $g(0)\in (-3,-2\sqrt{2}]\cup [2\sqrt{2},3)$.

Consider the interval $(0,3)$.

By $LMVT$ there exists $x=c_{1}$ where $c_{1}\in(0,3)$such that

$|g(c_{1})|=|f'(c_{1})|=\left|\frac{f(3)-f(0)}{3-0}\right|\leq \frac{|f(3)|+|f(0)|}{3}\leq\frac{1+1}{3}=\frac{2}{3}$

Similarly, on the interval $(-3,0)$ By $LMVT$ there exists $x=c_{2}$ where $c_{2}\in(-3,0)$such that

$|g(c_{2})|=|f'(c_{2})|=\left|\frac{f(0)-f(-3)}{0-(-3)}\right|\leq \frac{|f(0)|+|f(-3)|}{3}\leq\frac{1+1}{3}=\frac{2}{3}$.

WLOG,let us assume that $g(x)>0$.

Now clearly, $c_{2}<0<c_{1}$.

The values of $g(c_{2})$ and $g(c_{1})$ are less than or equal to $\frac{2}{3}$ whereas value of $g(0)\in [2\sqrt{2},3)$.

Since, $g(x)$ is twice differentiable, the graph of $y=g(x)$ must attain a point of maximum between

$c_{2}$ and $c_{1}$ and clearly at such a point of maximum ,say $x=c$ the value of $g''(c)<0$ and we are

done.

Maverick
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    How do you know that $g(x) > 0$? This can not be assumed "without loss of generality" because this condition imposes a strong constraint on the nature of $f$. It says that $f$ is strictly increasing (or if you consider $g(x) < 0$ then $f$ is strictly decreasing). – Paramanand Singh Feb 02 '16 at 04:06
  • @ParamanandSingh exactly! I was very confused by it. – DatBoi Feb 01 '22 at 09:49