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While working on some problem in differential topology, I had to prove the lemma below. It seems to me like I have not needed all the requirements in the lemma, leading me to think that I have missed some of the finer points.

Question

Given a group of $G$ of diffeomorphisms acting freely and properly discontinuous on a connected orientable smooth manifold $M$, show that the orbit space $M/G$ is orientable iff each $g \in G$ is an orientation preserving diffeomorphism of $M$.

Some Working

Firstly, let $\pi : M \rightarrow M/G$ be the natural homomorphism.

Forward: Let $M/ G$ be orientable; we want to show that $g \in G$ is orientation preserving. Let $\omega$ be an orientation form on $M / G$, then we can consider the pullback $\pi^* \omega$ which is an orientation form on $M$. We want to show that $g^* \pi^* \omega$ has the same orientation as $\pi^* \omega$. We note that $\pi \circ g = \pi$; therefore $g^* \pi^* \omega = \pi^* \omega$ and we conclude that $g$ is orientation preserving.

Converse: Suppose every $g \in G$ is orientation preserving, then given some orientation form $\omega$ on $M$, $g^* \omega$ is also consistently oriented with respect to $\omega$. Consider some $[x] \in M/G$, we can push $\omega$ to $M/G$ through $\mathrm{d} \pi_x : T_x M \rightarrow T_{[x]} (M/G)$. The resulting orientation is well defined since $\omega$ at each element in $\pi^{-1}([x])$ is consistently oriented.

The Issue

The question requires the elements of $G$ to be acting freely and properly discontinuous. That is, for all $p \in M$ there exists a neighbourhood $U$ of $p$ such that $g(U) \cap U = \varnothing$.

I do not seem to use that property in my proof, leading me to think that my proof is incorrect. Can someone explain where this property comes into play? I'm suspecting that it comes into play in the proof of the converse, but I'm not sure how as it seems to me like I just need the property that $g$ is diffeomorphic.

JP-Ellis
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1 Answers1

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You need to use the proper discontinuity condition to show that $\pi^*\omega$ is an orientation form in your forward proof. In general if the group action is not properly discontinuous, the dimension of $M/G$ is strictly less than that of $M$ and $\pi^*\omega$ can never be an orientation form.

Alex Fok
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  • Well, now that you mention it, this seems quite obvious! A concrete example would be to have $M = \mathbb{R}^n$ and $G$ be the group of translations. Then $M / G$ is the trivial group and the pullback of an "orientation" on $M/G$ cannot be an orientation form. I need to think a little more as to why properly discontinuous then $M/G$ has the same dimension as $M$, though I think I can see why. – JP-Ellis Jun 03 '15 at 12:41