Let R$_1$ and R$_2$ be two equivalence relations on the same set A.
Not sure how to interpret this statement. Does it mean...
A = {1, 2} $\quad$#for example
AR$_1$A = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 2)}
AR$_2$A = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 2)}
R$_1$$\cap$R$_2$ = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 2)}
R$_1$$\cup$R$_2$ = {(1, 1), (1, 2), (2, 1), (2, 2)}