So I was thinking about the formula for integrals: $\int f(x) dx$. But since $y = f(x)$, I started to wonder about $y dx$ and using a parametrisation of $x$ and $y$ in the integral formula to solve definite integrals.
For instance, I considered the area of a circle of radius $r$, where $x = r \cos t$ and $ y = r \sin t$. So I got the definite integral (by saying that $dx =-r \sin t \;dt$) $\int -r^2(\sin^2(t) dt$, evaluated from $0$ to $2\pi$) and got the result $-\pi r^2$.
Granted, the actual area is $\pi r^2$ but they're at least equal in magnitude, so I was wondering if what I did is a valid operation or not?
Edit: Ok, I think my question was mis-interpreted through my own fault. The question is not really centred around finding the area of the circle using integration. I know how to do that, and I have a good grasp of concepts such as line integrals and arc length. I'm really just experimenting with concepts. For a given function, the integral is defined as $\int f(x) dx$. My line of thinking was that since $y = f(x)$, we can rewrite it as $\int y dx$.
Then, we can consider the parametrisations for $x$ and $y$
$x = g(t)$, $y = h(t)$. Then we say $\frac{dx}{dt} = g'(t)$, $dx = g'(t) dt$.
Then we sub back into the equation $\int y dx$ to get $\int h(t)\cdot g'(t) dt$.
I did this with the case of a circle with radius $r$ above.
My question is, is it valid to do what I just did, replace x and y with parametric equations? I don't mean this as a way to solve a given integral, but a different way of solving for things such as the area of a circle.