Wolfram Alpha indicates the following solution form:-
$$ \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\sin x}{1 + A \sin x} dx = (1/A)\left( x - \frac{2 \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{A + \tan{(x/2)}}{\sqrt{(1-A^2)}}\right)}{\sqrt{(1-A^2)}} + constant\right)^{2\pi}_0 $$
My thinking is that substituting for $x$ by $2 \pi$ and by $0$ the corresponding values of $\tan(x/2)$ are the same, namely $\tan(\pi) = \tan(0) = 0$. It follows therefore that the fractional term:- $$ \frac{2 \tan^{-1} \left( \frac{A + \tan{(x/2)}}{\sqrt{(1-A^2)}}\right)}{\sqrt{(1-A^2)}} $$ has the same value ( let us call it $Q$ ) for $x=2\pi$ and $x=0.$ Therefore the definite integral becomes
$$ \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\sin x}{1 + A \sin x} dx = (1/A)\left( (2\pi - Q + constant) - (0 - Q + constant) \right) = 2\pi/A. $$
For $A = 0.2$ we derive the result $$ \int_0^{2\pi} \frac{\sin x}{1 + 0.2 \sin x} dx = 10 \pi. $$
However Wolfram Alpha gives the answer as $-0.64782$ (approx.) which is reasonable looking at the graph.
So what is wrong with my reasoning? ( I realize that the $\tan$ function is not continuous over the range $0,2\pi$ but I don't know what that implies for the analysis of the definite integral ).
EDIT I have accepted @abel's alternative method for solving the integral.
I have posted a related question here which asks why the approach which I followed is incorrect.