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EDIT: The question was put on hold because I didn't specify what I meant by vertex. In a comment below by Mark McClure, by "vertex" I mean one of the vertices of the standard, polygonal approximations to the Koch curve.

I have been trying to create a bijection from the integers to the vertices in the Koch Snowflake to show that there are countably infinite vertices. I bijected the vertices of the 0th iteration triangle onto {0,1,2}, and in each stage of iteration biject the newly created vertices into the digits {0,1,2,3}. Then, I concatenate the new digit to the left to encode the location into the integer. This way, we can use the integer to "locate" the theoretical vertex at infinity, and use the location of the vertex to create the integer.

However, I'm worried that the bijection falls apart if the integer is finite, since there will be an infinite amount of 0's on the left. Is my argument still okay?

Thank you in advance.

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    There are uncountably many paths (from the root, straight down) in an infinite complete binary tree, so I suspect there are uncountably many vertices in the snowflake. – Joe Moeller Jun 12 '15 at 06:33
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    What is a vertex anyway? I suppose the Koch curve is nowhere differentiable, so ... – Hagen von Eitzen Jun 12 '15 at 06:46
  • @JoeMoeller You are probably correct - I never thought of it that way. The infinite complete binary tree bijection falls apart for the same reasons I'm worrying about.

    Would it be possible to construct a co-ordinate system with step size equal to the base of the triangle and biject the vertices to the x-component? I'm hoping that somehow there will be a bijection to the rationals between 0 and 1.

    –  Jun 12 '15 at 07:15
  • @HagenvonEitzen Even that is debatable, I guess... But we don't lose any vertices as we go through iterations, so I could pinpoint certain vertices obtained earlier and claim they exist at $\infty$ right? –  Jun 12 '15 at 07:15
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    Supposing that by "vertex" you mean one of the vertices of the standard, polygonal approximations to the Koch curve, then perhaps the answer to this question might help? That indicates a technique to place the vertices in 1-1 correspondence with finite strings of symbols so, if you can enumerate those, then you've enumerated the vertices. – Mark McClure Jun 12 '15 at 10:35
  • Yes, that is exactly the same argument I made. But I'm still worried that to get to any actual vertex other than one in a very tiny segment, we need an infinite length string after infinite iterations.

    Of course, after a finite amount of iterations, we can easily biject the finitely many vertices.

    –  Jun 12 '15 at 10:38
  • Unclear what you're asking, since you gave no definition of "vertex". –  Jun 13 '15 at 19:32

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Let's focus first on the Koch curve. A standard construction for the curve starts with a single line segment, breaks it into thirds, and replaces the middle third with the other two sides of an equilateral triangle.

enter image description here

Now, by "vertex of the Koch curve", I suppose you mean one of the vertices in one of these polygonal approximations. The easiest way to prove that there are countably many of these is to simply point out that there are finitely many at each step and that the total collection of vertices is the countable union of these finite sets. Nonetheless, it is an interesting problem to enumerate them explicitly and potentially useful as there are certainly self-similar sets where these points play a distinguished role in the limit set.

The construction of the Koch curve can be described using an iterated function system $\{T_0,T_1,T_2,T_3\}$, where \begin{align} T_0(x) &= x/3 \\ T_1(x) &= R(\pi/3)\,x/3 + \langle 1/3,0 \rangle \\ T_2(x) &= R(-\pi/3)\,x/3 + \langle 1/2, \sqrt{3}/6 \rangle \\ T_3(x) &= x/3 + \langle 2/3, 0 \rangle. \\ \end{align} In this notation, $x\in\mathbb R^2$ and $$ R(\theta) = \left( \begin{array}{cc} \cos(\theta) & -\sin(\theta) \\ \sin(\theta) & \cos(\theta) \end{array}\right) $$ is the rotation matrix through the angle $\theta$ about the origin.

Now, the segments in the first step of the approximation are exactly the images of the unit interval $((x,0):x\in [0,1])$ under the functions in the IFS. We might represent this like so:

enter image description here

The side labeled $\{i\}$ is the image of the unit interval under the function $T_i$. The process extends naturally to the next level.

enter image description here

The segment labeled $\{i_2,i_1\}$ is the image of the unit interval under the function $T_{i_1}\circ T_{i_2}$. These segments come in a natural order to form a continuous path moving from $(0,0)$ to $(1,0)$. As such, each has an initial endpoint and a terminal endpoint. The labels on the edges can be used to enumerate the vertices. Specifically, each label is the base four expansion of an integer; we'll map that integer to the initial endpoint of the corresponding segment. At level three, this produces an enumeration that looks something like so:

enter image description here

To map onto the vertex of the snowflake itself, you can simply map the multiples of three to the vertices above, the numbers of the form $3n+1$ to one of the other sides and the numbers of the form $3n+2$ to the remaining side. Note that the right most point above is not taken. That's fine, as that can be the initial point of the next side.

Mark McClure
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  • Thank you for this. Why doesn't the same reasoning hold for an infinite binary tree, as Joe Moeller commented above? Can you not also enumerate them with an infinite string of binary numbers with 0 signifying "left" and 1 signifiying "right" from its parent node? –  Jun 15 '15 at 00:41
  • @LinusS. We have now carefully defined a vertex as a vertex of one of the polygonal approximations. These correspond to the (finite) addresses. If you allow the branches to have infinite length, you can then determine other points on the Koch curve. This is analogous to the fact that the terminating decimal expansions determine only countably many real numbers. You need non-terminating expansions get the remaining reals. – Mark McClure Jun 15 '15 at 01:39
  • Ah, I see now - I think I was mistaking the approximation of the curve with the curve itself. Thanks! –  Jun 15 '15 at 03:59