Suppose $X\sim\mathcal{F}_X$ and denote $F_X(x)$ the cdf and $F_X^{-1}(x)$ the quantile function of $\mathcal{F}_X$ evaluated at $x$.
Now define:
$Y=\exp(X)$
and denote $\mathcal{F}_Y$ the distribution of $Y$. Since $\exp$ is a monotone increasing transformation, I (think I) know that:
$$(0)\quad F_Y(y)=F_X(\log(y))$$
my question is: can we also obtain an expression for $F^{-1}_Y$ in terms of $F^{-1}_X$? I looked online and could not find an equivalent to $(0)$ for inverse CDF's.
Sorry if the question is naive (or notation a bit off, I would certainly appreciate any comment on these): I'm not a professional mathematician and I'm trying to understand a derivation.