$(\forall(x))(P(x) \implies Q(x)) \implies \{(\forall(x))P(x) \implies (\forall(x))Q(x) \}$ why this is not valid and how the converse of this is valid?
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1Do you personally believe this is valid? What have you considered about the question? – anak Jun 22 '15 at 12:53
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Erm you got the order wrong in the question (but not in the title). – user21820 Jun 22 '15 at 14:25
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HINT Consider the statements $x$ is divisible by $4$ and $x$ is divisible by $2$.
DRF
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Thanks for the hint it made sense now .I took p(x) has x is employed and q(x) has x is happy that caused the confusion. – user249855 Jun 22 '15 at 13:14
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