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so my question is, how can you prove that ${\Bbb Z}$ x ${\Bbb R}$ is uncountable?

So far I have tried proving that there is an uncountable subset of ${\Bbb Z}$ x ${\Bbb R}$ without luck and I'm not really sure what I can do

Thanks for any tips you can give!

Rdewolfe
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    "So far I have tried proving that there is an uncountable subset of ${\Bbb Z}\times {\Bbb R}$ without luck and I'm not really sure what I can do", ${0}\times \mathbb R\subseteq \mathbb Z\times \mathbb R$. – Git Gud Jun 24 '15 at 19:05

3 Answers3

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Let us consider the following : $A\times B$ is countable. This means all subsets of $A\times B$ are countable. In particular $\{0\}\times B$ and $A\times \{0\}$ are countable. But the projection on $B$ and $A$ respectively induce bijection from $\{0\}\times B\to B$ and from $A\times \{0\}\to A$. This proves that $A$ and $B$ are countable

marwalix
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Write $|X|$ to mean the cardinality of the set $X$. You want to show that $|\mathbb N|<|\mathbb Z\times\mathbb R|$. In fact, something stronger is true: $|\mathbb R|\leq|\mathbb Z\times\mathbb R|$.

In general, we show that $|X|\leq|Y|$ by finding an injective function from $X$ to $Y$. (This is one definition of $|X|\leq|Y|$.) Can you think of an injective function from $\mathbb R$ to $\mathbb Z\times\mathbb R$? That is, can you find a way to match every element of $\mathbb R$ up with an element of $\mathbb Z\times\mathbb R$ without overlapping matches?

user134824
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If $\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{R}$ were countable, we could pick a surjection $\pi=(\pi_1, \pi_2)$: $\mathbb{N}\longrightarrow\mathbb{Z}\times\mathbb{R}$. But then $\pi_2$: $\mathbb{N}\longrightarrow\mathbb{R}$ would be a surjection, so $\mathbb{R}$ would be countable.