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Title says it all I looked for a proof on this site but couldn't find one.

Prove if $f$ is analytic on $D$ and $g$ is analytic on $\Omega$ containing the range of $f$ show $g(f(z))$ is analytic.

The statement seems obvious but I can't seem to be able to prove it.

PinkyWay
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Aleksandar
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3 Answers3

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This is really a pointwise result; we don't need analyticity in full open sets.

Suppose $f'(a),g'(f(a))$ both exist. Then $(g\circ f)'(a) = g'(f(a))f'(a).$

Proof: First, $f$ is continuous at $a$ since $f'(a)$ exists. Second, there exists $r>0$ and $M$ such that

$$|g(w)-g(f(a))| \le M|w-f(a)|, w \in D(f(a),r).$$

Suppose $f'(a) = 0.$ Because $f$ is continuous at $a,$ $f(z) \in D(f(a),r)$ for $z$ near $a.$ For such $z,z\ne a,$ we have

$$\left| \frac{g(f(z)) - g(f(a))}{z-a}\right| \le M\left| \frac{f(z)-f(a)|}{z-a}\right|.$$

The right side $\to 0$ and we see the desired result holds.

If $f'(a)\ne 0,$ then $f(z) \ne f(a)$ for $z$ in some punctured disc centered at $a.$ This allows for the "fake proof" to actually work: For such $z,$

$$\frac{g(f(z)) - g(f(a))}{z-a}= \frac{g(f(z)) - g(f(a))}{f(z)-f(a)}\cdot \frac{f(z)-f(a)}{z-a}.$$

Now let $z\to a$ to bring it on home.

zhw.
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  • Would this argument extend to analytic Real functions? The chain rule clearly applies, but differentiable does not imply analytic in this case. – MSIS Dec 08 '20 at 00:48
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    @MSIS No it wouldn't. This argument is the same as for the chain rule in one variable calculus. It is different from the usual ones in that it treats the cases $f'(a)=0,f'(a)\ne 0$ separately. I've always felt this is more intuitive. – zhw. Jan 18 '21 at 17:49
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Notice that

$$\displaystyle\lim_{z\to z_0}\dfrac{g(f(z))-g(f(z_0))}{z-z_0} =\displaystyle\lim_{z\to z_0} \left[\dfrac{g(f(z))-g(f(z_0))}{z-z_0} \times\dfrac{f(z)-f(z_0)}{f(z)-f(z_0)}\right] $$

Where $z_0\in D$

FH93
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1

A question linking to this question was closed as duplicate when the asker wanted to use the cauchy riemann equations. I will include a proof now showing that functions which obey the cauchy riemann equations are closed under composition.

So suppose we have two functions $f,g : \mathbb{R}^2 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^2$ Which we can described explicitly in terms of their "x" and "y" parts as:

$$ f = \left( f_u(x,y), f_v(x,y) \right) $$

$$ g = \left( g_u(x,y), g_v(x,y) \right) $$

The cauchy rieman equations for any such 2 variable to 2 ouput function as $u(x,y)$ and $v(x,y)$ is

$$ \frac{\partial u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial v}{\partial y} \\ \frac{\partial u}{\partial y} = - \frac{\partial v}{\partial x}$$

So now we want to verify that $ h = g \circ f$ obeys the cauchy riemann equations IF $f$ and $g$ both obey the equations. For convenience we will break up $h$ into two parts $h_u, h_v$ such that

$$ h_u = g_u(f_u(x,y), f_v(x,y)) $$ $$ h_v = g_v(f_u(x,y), f_v(x,y)) $$

So our goal is to show that

$$ \frac{\partial h_u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial h_v}{\partial y} \\ \frac{\partial h_u}{\partial y} = - \frac{\partial h_v}{\partial x}$$

So now we get ready to pull out that rusty chain rule and get to work. Let's start with the first part of the Cauchy Riemann Equations

$$ \frac{\partial h_u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \left[ g_u(f_u(x,y), f_v(x,y)) \right] = \frac{\partial g_u}{\partial f_u} \frac{\partial f_u}{\partial x} + \frac{\partial g_u}{\partial f_v} \frac{\partial f_v}{\partial x} $$

$$ \frac{\partial h_v}{\partial y} = \frac{\partial}{\partial x} \left[ g_v(f_u(x,y), f_v(x,y)) \right] = \frac{\partial g_v}{\partial f_u} \frac{\partial f_u}{\partial y} + \frac{\partial g_v}{\partial f_v} \frac{\partial f_v}{\partial y} $$

Since $f,g$ both the cauchy riemann equations it must be that

$$ \frac{\partial g_u}{\partial f_u} = \frac{\partial g_v}{\partial f_v}$$

and $$ \frac{\partial f_u}{\partial x} = \frac{\partial f_v}{\partial y} $$

So then we conclude that these two parts are equal:

$$ \color{red}{\frac{\partial g_u}{\partial f_u} \frac{\partial f_u}{\partial x}} + \frac{\partial g_u}{\partial f_v} \frac{\partial f_v}{\partial x} \\ \frac{\partial g_v}{\partial f_u} \frac{\partial f_u}{\partial y} + \color{red}{\frac{\partial g_v}{\partial f_v} \frac{\partial f_v}{\partial y}}$$

Now the other diagonal is a bit more complicated since

$$ \frac{\partial g_u}{\partial f_v} = -\frac{\partial g_v}{\partial f_u} \\ \frac{\partial f_u}{\partial y} = - \frac{\partial f_v}{\partial x}$$

But when you put those TWO facts together both the minus signs end up cancelling out.

So we have after all this work shown that $h = f \circ g$ obeys ONE of the cauchy riemann equations. The second equation is left as an exercise to the reader ;)