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Let $X,Y\in\mathcal{L}^2$ and let $F$ be a $\sigma$-algebra.

How to show that $E(XE(Y\mid F)=E(E(X\mid F)Y)$?

Maybe you can give me some help?

Rhjg
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  • It's more conventional to use $\mathscr{F}$ to denote a general $\sigma$-algebra. "$F$" may be confused with the random variable named $F$. – Zhanxiong Jul 02 '15 at 15:02

1 Answers1

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The trick is iterated expectation. $$ E[XE(Y\mid F)]=E[E(XE(Y\mid F)\mid F)]=E[E(Y\mid F)E(X\mid F)] $$ where the second equality is because $E(Y\mid F)$ is $F$-measurable. Now can you do the same with $E[E(X\mid F)Y]$ to produce the rightmost expression above?

Kim Jong Un
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