I'm using the following definition of a (smooth) manifold:

It's from J.Munkres "Analysis on Manifolds". This is an exercise taken from this book: Is the unit square $[0,1]\times [0,1]$ a $2$-manifold in $\mathbb{R}^2$? I searched for answers on the web and they all came out to be different: for example see https://www.physicsforums.com/threads/why-is-the-unit-square-a-2-manifold.566654/ or Is the unit square a submanifold/manifold?. Some people say it's a topological manifold with boundary, others say it's not a manifold with boundary. Which is the correct answer? I know there's a big difference between a smooth manifold and a topological manifold; however some people say that $(0,0)$ has no neighborhood homeomorphic to an open ball in $\mathbb{R}^2$ or an open in $\mathbb{H}^2$, so this means that it cannot be a topological manifold, right? It cannot be neither a smooth manifold because of the "corners", right? Keeping corners out of the picture for a moment, is the tangent vector well defined inside the square? If I took a point inside the square I would be able to draw countless tangent vectors however...that's the point I can't understand; can you please give me a complete answer? Maybe giving a formal proof (I mean not just saying because of corners, or such other things, but proving really the tangent vector is not defined there). One last thing, I think this problem Cartesian product between manifolds could turn out to be useful, however it has no answer yet.