My teacher's lecture note states bounded function defined on a measurable set is not necessarily measurable. Can anyone help give a concrete example? Thank you!
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Let $E\subset [0,1]$ be a non-measurable set. Then $$f(x)=\cases{1 & \text{ if $x\in E$}\\ 0 & \text{otherwise}}$$ is not measurable.
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Suppose that $S$ is a set that is not measurable.
Then $1_S$ is not measurable.
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