Prove: $$\frac{1}{(1+z)^2}=1-2z+\mathcal{O}(z^2)$$ as $z\to 0$.
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1What have you tried so far? Are you familiar with methods for retrieving series expansions? – Scounged Jul 13 '15 at 14:50
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2Why did you delete the same question yesterday only to re-ask today? – epimorphic Jul 13 '15 at 15:59
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Hint. From the standard identity $$ \frac1{1+z}=1-z+z^2+O(z^3), \quad |z|<1, \tag1 $$ you obtain by differentiating $$ \frac{-1}{(1+z)^2}=-1+2z+O(z^2), \quad |z|<1, \tag2 $$ as desired.
You may prove $(1)$ by the Maclaurin formula.
Olivier Oloa
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An alternative approach to the one given by Olivier Oloa above can be to use an ansatz:
$\frac1{(1+z)^2}=a+bz+O(z^2), \quad |z|<1, \quad a,b\in\mathbb{C}\tag1$
Multiplying each side by the factor $(1+z)^2$, we get:
$1=(1+z)^2(a+bz+O(z^2)), \quad |z|<1, \tag2$
Now we expand, and simplify:
$(2)\Leftrightarrow ... \Leftrightarrow 1=a+(2a+b)z+O(z^2), \quad |z|<1, \tag3$
Identification in $(3)$ now gives that $a=1$ and $b=-2$, as desired.
Scounged
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