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The following property of Lebesgue integrals is true for nonnegative measurable functions $f_n$ (because it is a consequence of the monotone convergence theorem): $$\int (\sum_{n=1}^\infty f_n) d\mu = \sum_{n=1}^\infty \int f_n d\mu$$

Can anyone give me an example to show it's wrong for a series of functions that are not nonnegative.

Or is there some additional conditions so that the theorem is still true.

Thang
  • 827

2 Answers2

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It's true if there is a function $F$ such that $\sum_n |f| \le F$ and $\int F \; d\mu < \infty$ (use Lebesgue dominated convergence theorem).

Robert Israel
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If your measure space is $[0,2\pi]$ and $f_n = sinx$

$\sum_{n=1}^\infty \int f_n d\mu = 0$

and $ \int\sum_{n=1}^\infty f_n d\mu$ is undefined.

amirbd89
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