First of all, there is really no reason to have the $1-x$, you can do everything again with $n y^n$, since $f(x)=1-x$ is a bijection from $(0,1)$ to itself.
Now to have $y^n < \delta$, it is enough to have $n>\frac{\ln(\delta)}{\ln(y)}$. You need $\delta=\varepsilon/n$. So you in principle need $n>\frac{\ln(\varepsilon) - \ln(n)}{\ln(y)}$. The tight solution to this involves the Lambert W function.
However, we can give an answer which is not tight in terms of elementary functions. As a side lemma, prove that $n^{1/2}>\ln(n)$. (This isn't hard: the minimum of $n^{1/2}-\ln(n)$ occurs at $n=4$, and so it is enough to prove $2>\ln(4)$, which is the same as proving $e>2$.) Then by replacing the $\ln(n)$ with $n^{1/2}$, it is enough to take $n$ larger than all solutions to
$$x+\frac{x^{1/2}}{\ln(y)}-\frac{\ln(\varepsilon)}{\ln(y)}=0.$$
The largest solution is
$$x=\left ( \frac{1}{2} \left ( -\frac{1}{\ln(y)} + \left ( \frac{1}{\ln(y)^2}+\frac{4\ln(\varepsilon)}{\ln(y)} \right )^{1/2} \right )\right )^2.$$
Note that everything is sensibly defined provided $0<\varepsilon,y<1$. For a sanity check, if $\varepsilon$ is so small that the middle term is negligible, then we get essentially $\frac{\ln(\varepsilon)}{\ln(y)}$ as expected. (I made an error that failed this check earlier.)