I'm trying to do a few questions set by a lecturer on line integrals.
I was struggling with a few of them and decided to look at the solutions:
Often when $$\int_C \vec{F}\cdot d\vec{r}$$ is tricky to evaluate he will say $$\int_C~ \vec{F}\cdot d\vec{r}=\int_C ~(\vec{F}-\nabla f)\cdot d\vec{r}$$ I have never seen this method before and don't understand what he is doing how the two are equal or even where the function $f$ comes from. Could anyone explain in the simplest way possible or give me something to research so I know what is going on.
Thanks.