Background: Over a locally ringed space $X$, if we define the tensor product of two $\mathscr{O}_X$-modules $\mathscr{F}$ and $\scr{G}$ naively as $U \mapsto \mathscr{F}(U) \otimes \mathscr{G}(U)$, we won't necessarily get a sheaf and we sheafify this presheaf to get the actual definition of tensor product of two $\mathscr{O}_X$-modules.
What I would like to know is what is the intuitive reason why the naive definition is not a sheaf. For example, on $\mathbb{P}^n = \mathrm{Proj}\,k[x_0,\dots, x_n]$, if we take the hyperplane $H=V(x_0)$, then $\Gamma(\mathbb{P}^n, \mathscr{O}_{\mathbb{P}^n}(1)\otimes \mathscr{O}_H) \ne \Gamma(\mathbb{P}^n, \mathscr{O}_{\mathbb{P}^n}(1))\otimes_k \Gamma(H,\mathscr{O}_H)$. This is because on the left hand side, the global section $x_0$ got killed by $\mathscr{O}_H$, but not on the right hand side. However, I have a bad intuitive understanding still of why the two sides aren't equal. Also, I would like to know about more exotic cases as well.
Question: What causes the definition $U \mapsto \mathscr{F}(U) \otimes \mathscr{G}(U)$ to fail to be a sheaf?
Your help is greatly appreciated!