Let $f$ be a non-negative real valued function on $[a,b]$, and let $p:[a,b]\to(1,\infty)$ such that $f^p\in L^1([a,b])$. Let $p_n:[a,b]\to(1,\infty)$ be a (uniformly bounded) sequence of (step-)functions converging to $p$ wrt. the $L^1$-norm, i.e. $||p_n-p||_{L^1([a,b])}\to0$ as $n\to\infty$.
Question: Does \begin{align*} \lim_{n\to\infty}\int_a^bf(x)^{p_n(x)}dx=\int_a^bf(x)^{p(x)}dx \end{align*} hold in general?
If $f$ is bounded, the proof is easy using the Lipschitz continuity of exponential functions. But what if $f$ is unbounded? I neither know if $f^{p_n}$ is in $L^1$, nor I could find a counterexample. Any help, ideas, hints or even counter examples are highly appreciated. Thanks in advance!