Let R be asymmetric.
So we have:
- Assumption: (x,y)∈R⟹(y,x)∉R
We need to show R is antisymmetric, i.e.
- (x,y)∈R∧(y,x)∈R⟹x=y
Since 2 is a conditional, we can assume
- Assumption:(x,y)∈R∧(y,x)∈R
And try to show
- x=y.
But if we simplify LHS of 3 and use Modus Ponens on (x,y)∈R and 1, our assumption, we have
- (y,x)∉R
Which contradicts RHS of 3.
So how could an asymmetric relation be antisymmetric? Did I do something wrong here?
But isn't this an entailment? I thought vacuous truth only happens in conditional implication, not entailment.
– Constantly confused Aug 01 '15 at 05:17It follows from this that: $\forall x\forall y\Big(\neg\big((x,y)\in R\wedge (y,x)\in R \big)\Big)$
Antisymmetry is the property that: $\forall x\forall y \Big((x,y)\in R\wedge (y,x)\in R \to x=y\Big)$
Since we have asymmetry, the antecedent is always false, this implication is always true regardless of the consequent. Thus, it is a vacuous truth.
– Graham Kemp Aug 03 '15 at 00:12