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Our professor gave us this question.

Write $\int^{2\pi}_{0}sin^{100}(x)dx$ as a multiple of $\int^{2\pi}_{0}sin^{98}(x)dx$ using simple techniques (like substitution or integration by parts). Can somebody give me a start on how to go about it?

  • There are formulas for reduction of powers that are available in most calculus textbooks. That use the same method as Khosrotash employed but in a more general setting. – Tucker Aug 02 '15 at 02:57

2 Answers2

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Remember: $ \sin^{100}(x)= \sin^{98}(x) \sin^{2}(x)= sin^{98}(x) (1-cos^{2}(x))$

Race Bannon
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  • This doesn't really answer the question. This lets you express it in terms of the integral of $\sin^{98}x$ and the integral of $\sin^{98}x \cos^2x$, which is not the goal. – Matt Samuel Aug 02 '15 at 03:56
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Use integration by part $$I_{100}=\int^{2\pi}_{0}\sin^{100}x\,dx=\\\int^{2\pi}_{0}(\sin x)^{99}\cdot{\color{Green} {\sin x}} \,dx\\ =({\color{Green} {-\cos x}}) \sin^{99}x \Big|_{0}^{2\pi}-\int^{2\pi}_{0}(99(\sin x)^{98}\cdot\cos x )({\color{Green} {-\cos x}})\, dx=\\ 0 -(-99)\int^{2\pi}_{0}\sin^{98}x\cdot(\cos^2x)=\\99\int^{2\pi}_{0}\sin^{98}x(1-\sin^2x) dx=\\99\int^{2\pi}_{0}(\sin^{98}x-\sin^{100}x)dx\\=I_{100}=99\left(\int^{2\pi}_{0}(\sin^{98}x)dx-\int^{2\pi}_{0}\sin^{100}x\,dx\right) \to$$ $$ {\color{Red}{I_{100}=99(I_{98}-I_{100})} }\\100I_{100}=99I_{98}\\$$

Clayton
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Khosrotash
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