Let $f:\Bbb{C}\to \Bbb{C}$ be defined as
$$f(x+iy)= \frac{x^{3}-y^{3}+i(x^{3}+y^{3})}{x^2+y^2} \text{ if} x+iy \neq 0$$
and $f(x+iy)=0$ if $x+iy=0$
Show that $f$ is continuous at $0$ and it satisfies the Cauchy-Riemann conditions but it is not differentiable
Ok, so I'm getting messed up when trying to check the continuity. Of course I have to check that
$$\lim_{x+iy \to 0}f(x+iy) = 0$$
However, my doubt is the following: I am aware of a result (I have already proved) that says that
$$\lim_{z\to z_0} f(z) = a + ib \text{ iff } \lim_{z\to z_0}\operatorname{Re}(f(z)) = a \text{ and } \lim_{z\to z_0} \operatorname{Im}(f(z)) = b$$
However, with the use of this result (or not), I'm getting mixed up with the $x+iy \to 0$. Does this imply taking $|x+iy|=x^2+y^2 < \epsilon$ for every $\epsilon >0$?
And so, how can I proceed?
Should I encounter this limit by definition or is there another way?