It is rather easy to show that angular momentum is conserved. The rate of change of angular momentum $\mathbf{L}$ is the torque ($\mathbf{\tau}$):
$$
\frac{d \mathbf{L}}{dt} = \frac{d \mathbf{}}{dt} (\mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{p}) = \frac{d \mathbf{\mathbf{r}}}{dt} \times \mathbf{p} + \mathbf{r} \times \frac{d \mathbf{\mathbf{p}}}{dt}
= \mathbf{r} \times \mathbf{F} = \mathbf{\tau}
$$
since $\mathbf{F}$ is along $\hat{r}$, this is zero. Note also that $\frac{d \mathbf{\mathbf{r}}}{dt} \times \mathbf{p}$ is zero because velocity $\frac{d \mathbf{\mathbf{r}}}{dt} $ is parallel to momentum $\mathbf{p}$.
This is actually true for all central forces (in case one is not familiar with central forces, any force which its magnitude depends only on the distance of the object to a center is central force).
The other way is to write down equations of motion in polar coordinates (which is the preferred coordinates system in case of central forces due to symmetry). You just need to take time derivatives from $\mathbf{r} = r \hat{r}$ to find:
$$
\frac{\mathbf{F}}{m} = \mathbf{a} = (\ddot{r}-r\dot{\theta}^2) \hat{r} + (2\dot{r}\dot{\theta}+r^2\ddot{\theta}) \hat{\theta}
$$
since $\theta-$component of a central force is zero, we have:
$$
2\dot{r}\dot{\theta}+r^2\ddot{\theta} = \frac{1}{r}\frac{d}{dt}(r^2\dot{\theta}) = 0 \Rightarrow m r^2\dot{\theta} = \textrm{constant} = mr (r\dot\theta) = mr\omega = L
$$
To write down equation of motion in terms of $u$ ($u=r^{-1}$), just replace $r$ by $u$ in the $r-$component of $\mathbf{F}$:
$$
\ddot{r}-r\dot{\theta}^2 = \frac{A}{r^{2}}+\frac{B}{r^{4}}
$$
In case you wonder how to deal with $\dot{\theta}$, just rewrite it in terms of constant $L$ (physics note: this gives you an effective potential).