One can easily show that $W_0^{1,2}((a,b)) \subset C^0((a,b))$ for any finite interval $(a,b)$. Intuitively $W_0^{1,2}((a,b))$ should contain more functions than $C_0^0((a,b))$, but how to prove that?
I guess a function which is nowhere differentiable in $(a',b') \subset (a,b)$ should do the trick, but I have, sadly, no idea how to prove that.
Any hints?