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in a paper I have read that Croatian pupils in the secondary school learns on average two languages (on "normal" gymnasians (=~ high school) 2, in science-oriented 1 and in linguistic schools, 3). (See p. 5 at the buttom, warning, it's German: https://www.ffzg.unizg.hr/german/cms/media/casopisZGB/ZGB15HaueslerKaracic.pdf)

But m. E. the the chart on p. 8 upstairs is contrary to this fact. I think, the language English should be nearly at 100 % and maybe German also. Towards this chart (narly) nobody learns 2 languages on the Gymnasium Suppose that 75 % of the pupils go to normal Gymnsiums, still two languages should be each nearly at 75 %.

Thanks for your help beforehand, and sry for my bad English..!

Michael Zeidler
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  • The percentages seem to be constrained to add up to $100%$. So if everybody learns exactly two languages, one of which is English, then the English share of languages learnt will be $50 %$ – Henry Aug 11 '15 at 20:22
  • @Henry: That seems to be true, but does it make any sense to constrain the percentages here? – Keba Aug 11 '15 at 20:25
  • I did not write the article but the data would be more useful if there were more tables like Tables 1 and 5 with the addition of the total number of pupils. – Henry Aug 11 '15 at 20:32
  • Thank you very much four answer. Somtehing like that I have assumed. I neither see any utility of this. But if it so like you sad, Henry, that if everyone learns English, the share is 50 %, why are the percentages of English learners a little bit OVER 50 % ? – Michael Zeidler Aug 12 '15 at 08:36

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