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Write $f(z) = u(r, \theta) + iv(r, \theta)$; suppose that the first-order partials of $u, v$ with respect to $r, \theta$ are continuously differentiable in some neighborhood of $z$ and satisfy $ru_r = v_\theta$ and $rv_r = -u_\theta$. Then, $f$ is differentiable at $z$.

One approach is to show that $u_x, u_y, v_x, v_y$ are continuously differentiable and satisfy $u_x = v_y$ and $-v_x = u_y$. To that end, it is necessary to show that $\frac{\partial r}{\partial x}, \frac{\partial \theta}{\partial x} \ldots$ are continuously differentiable. Then, via the chain rule, $u_x = u_r \frac{\partial r}{\partial x} + u_\theta \frac{\partial \theta}{\partial x} \ldots$ so on and so forth.

But if you are defining $\theta$ with $\tan^{-1}\frac{y}{x}$, then you will always have a branch cut somewhere. So, this approach will not work when we're at the branch cut. How do you deal with this?

Otherwise, to do it via definition of differentiability, then you need to untangle the nightmare in $\triangle z = (r + \triangle r)e^{i (\theta + \triangle \theta)} - re^{i \theta}$.

Andy Tam
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    see http://math.stackexchange.com/questions/205671/proof-of-cauchy-riemann-equations-in-polar-coordinates/205698#205698 concerning the branch-cut, that is the nature of polar coordinates. – James S. Cook Aug 17 '15 at 01:52
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    Oh, I should mention, for the question to be asked as it is they must assume a domain on which the polar coordinates provide derivatives. In other words, the issue of the branch-cut is probably not what they're after here. – James S. Cook Aug 17 '15 at 02:26
  • Good enough, TY – Andy Tam Aug 17 '15 at 12:35

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