Let $(ca)x + (cb)y = cd$ where $d = (a, b).$
Then since $\gcd(ca,cb)\mid ca$ and $\gcd(ca,cb)\mid cb \to \gcd(ca,cb)\mid cd$.
I don't get how they deduced the conclusion. For one thing, $\gcd(ca,cb)\mid ca$ and $ \gcd(ca,cb)\mid cb \to \gcd(ca,cb)\mid (c(a + b)) $ where $a + b = d$ only if $a + b = ax + by$ meaning $x = y = 1$. Please, elaborate on this.