By using a "smart" change of indices $i$ and $j$, I'm trying to show that \begin{equation} \sum_{i=1}^{N}\sum_{j=1}^{N}q_{i}q_{j}a_{i}\left(f_{i}f_{j}^{'}-f_{i}^{'}f_{j}\right) = \sum_{i=1}^{N}\sum_{j=i+1}^{N}q_{i}q_{j}\left(a_{i}-a_{j}\right)\left(f_{i}f_{j}^{'}-f_{i}^{'}f_{j}\right). \end{equation}
Here, $q$'s corresponds to probabilities, so they are all non-negative and less than 1, $f$'s are also non-negative.
I can prove that this holds by induction but I want to understand how to show this equality by using a change of summation indices.