No, but split the integral up into 2 pieces. Consider the difference between the LHS and the RHS:
$$\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{x} f \left ( \frac{a}{x} + \frac{x}{a} \right ) \log{\frac{x}{a}} = \\ \int_0^a \frac{dx}{x} f \left ( \frac{a}{x} + \frac{x}{a} \right ) \log{\frac{x}{a}} + \int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x} f \left ( \frac{a}{x} + \frac{x}{a} \right ) \log{\frac{x}{a}} $$
In the latter integral, sub $x=a^2/u$ and you will find that the integral is the negative of the former integral. viz.
$$\int_a^\infty \frac{dx}{x} f \left ( \frac{a}{x} + \frac{x}{a} \right ) \log{\frac{x}{a}} = \int_0^a \frac{du}{u} f \left ( \frac{a}{u} + \frac{u}{a} \right ) \log{\frac{a}{u}}$$
The integral over the infinite interval is thus zero, and the sought-after equality is true.
ADDENDUM
Not for nothing that
$$\int_0^\infty \frac{dx}{x} f \left ( \frac{a}{x} + \frac{x}{a} \right ) = 2 \int_2^{\infty} du \frac{f(u)}{\sqrt{u^2-4}} $$