[Proof taken from]: Kelley's book "General Topology".
If $A$ and $B$ are disjoint closed subsets of a normal space $X$, then there is a continuous function $f$ on $X$ to the interval $[0,1]$ such that $f$ is zero on $A$ and one on $B$.
The proof is structured as follows (here $F(-)$ will be a family of sets in $X$):
- Let $D$ the set of positive dyadic rational numbers. For $t$ in $D$ and $t > 1$ let $F(t) = X$, let $F(1) = X - B$ and let $F(0)$ be an open set containing $A$ such that cl$(F(0))$ is disjoint from $B$. (This part is clear)
2.For $t$ in $D$ and $0 < t < 1$ write $t$ in the form $t = (2m+1)2^{-n}$ and choose, inductively on $n$, $F(t)$ to be an open set containing cl$(F(2m2^{-n}))$ and such that cl$(F(t)) \subseteq F((2m+2)2^{-n}))$. This choice is possible because $X$ is normal.
Here there are my problems... How exactly does he use induction? And what exactly is the the role of $m$ during this operation? Please, is there someone that could explain me all the details regarding this point? I would to specify that:
I found another related topic here (Urysohn's Lemma: Proof), but I actually don't understand more or less the fourth line of the proof (which is exactly my problem);
I know that there are a lot of variants of this proof (for example the one on the book by Munkres, or another one on the classic by Rudin), but I strongly prefer to understand this one;
I have searched on the web, but without finding any detailed explanation;
- Let $f(x) = \inf\{t : x \in F(t) \}$. The previous lemma shows that $f$ is continuous. Furthermore, the function is zero on $A$ and one on $B$ [some related considerations]. (This part is clear).
Thank you very much for any hint/help/advice! Cheers