Statement : If $R_1$ and $R_2$ are both symmetric, then $R_1 \cap R_2$ is symmetric.
Is this always true? As far as I could understand this with an example, suppose I have a set $A = \{1,2,3\}$
And $R_1$ and $R_2$ be symmetric relations
where,
$R_1$ = $\{(1,2),(2,1)\}$ and $R_2$ = $\{(1,3),(3,1)\}$, then the statement turns out to be false. Am I right?