I've run by several proofs of the Fourier inversion theorem. However, every proof I have come across starts by assuming the form that the inverse transform will take. For example, Ron Gordon's answer to this question starts with the following assumption:
Now let's assume that the inverse FT may be written as
$$f(x) = A \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} dk \, \hat{f}(k) \, e^{-i k x}$$
Suppose I am stupid and I do not know what the inverse Fourier transform should look like. How do I derive it using my knowledge of the definition of the Fourier transform?