Let $p_1, p_2$ and $p_3$ be three statements.
Suppose now we know that if $p_1$ is true, then $p_2$ and $p_3$ are equivalent. That is, if $p_1$ and $p_2$ are true, then $p_3$ is true, and if $p_1$ and $p_3$ are true, then $p_2$ is true.
Now I want to know if the reverse is true. That is, if $p_2$ and $p_3$ are equivalent, must $p_1$ be true?
One way to disprove this is to find a counter example. How shall I formulate the requirements that a counterexample must satisfy? I have trouble understanding how to satisfy the requirement that $p_2$ and $p_3$ imply each other, although I know it means either both $p_2$ and $p_3$ are true, or neither is true. Is an example where $p_1$ is false, $p_2$ and $p_3$ are true a counterexample?
Note that $p_1, p_2$ and $p_3$, more accurately $p_1(x), p_2(x)$ and $p_3(x)$ , are given statements about some changeable object $x$, and can't be changed except the object $x$ they are talking about. For example, in Does $X ⊥ Y \leftrightarrow X ⊥ Y | Z$ implies $(X,Y) ⊥ Z$?, to construct an example, we have to choose the three random variables $X$, $Y$ and $Z$, but can't change the three statements about them.
Thanks.